Hospital Corpsman (HM) Personnel Qualification Standards (PQS) Practice Test

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• What is the correct sequence for handling a liquid spill using sorbents?
• What is the purpose of Part 3 (Record of physical qualifications, administrative forms) of the health record?
• During droplet precautions, what is required during patient transport?
• MRSA is typically managed under which type of precaution?
• Which information is required to complete the Chronological Record of Medical Care (SF 600)?
• Which system is a web-based application used to collect dental recall, readiness, and productivity data?
• Bismuth subsalicylate is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• Which principle is central to documenting inpatient care?
• Which of the following is NOT a requirement for lawful consent?
• HIPAA relates to patient privacy by providing what?
• During electronic system downtime, which action ensures specimen processing continues safely?
• Which feature is listed as a field associated with AHLTA, CHCS?
• Which environmental injury is included in the assessment criteria used for environmental health surveillance?
• Which OLDCARTS item corresponds to asking if there are other associated symptoms?
• Which guideline is a general guideline when closing out a health record?
• DCAPBTLS is a mnemonic used in which assessment phase?
• Which statement is true about the Chronological Record of Medical Care (SF 600) entries?
• Which statement best defines a droplet infection?
• The medical record is divided into parts for organizing forms. Which Part covers records of Physical Qualifications, Administrative Forms?
• Which statement best describes the HAIPC knowledge requirement?
• Which item would be considered a consumable or accessory for a nebulizer unit?
• Which factor is included in the standard list as affecting vital signs?
• Which group includes Sharps in Regulated Medical Waste?
• Localized cryotherapy for skin lesions involves which key step?
• Which statement best describes a vector in infectious disease transmission?
• Which of the following best describes the data associated with 'Clinical notes' in the electronic program of record (AHLTA, CHCS)?
• Flexeril is the trade name for which generic drug?
• Which splint type uses a padded board to immobilize an extremity?
• Which occupational health surveillance program focuses on preventing noise-induced hearing loss among personnel?
• Which condition is classified as an urgent referral criterion rather than an emergent referral criterion?
• Which sequence correctly describes steps to prepare the Unit Medical Readiness Report?
• Cyclobenzaprine is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• For the procedure 'Create a Health Record', which elements are included?
• Which is one of the 6 rights of medication administration?
• What information is required to complete the Report of Medical Examination (DD Form 2808)?
• During a skin biopsy, which sequence best describes the typical steps?
• Informed consent is defined as what?
• What is the primary purpose of documenting TST results?
• Which hazard is NOT listed for medical gas cylinder storage in patient care spaces?
• What does the Armed Forces Vision Tester (AFVT) assess?
• What action is taken when a member is placed on the retired list or Fleet Reserve List?
• Which form documents dental readiness in the military medical treatment jacket?
• Which group includes Chemotherapy Wastes?
• Which statement is true about container labeling for Regulated Medical Waste?
• Which action is essential during the removal of a urinary catheter to minimize discomfort and infection risk?
• Which of the following is NOT a blood-borne disease?
• What is the habitat where an infectious agent lives, grows, and multiplies?
• For demonstrating how to close a health record, which elements are included?
• Which presentation is most typical of pneumonia?
• In a SOAP note, what does the 'O' component stand for?
• Which route is not typically used for vaccines?
• Which method is used to document TST results after administration?
• Which presentation is most typical of cholecystitis?
• The Privacy Act of 1974 establishes what?
• The Chronical Record of Medical Care (SF 600) includes which of the following?
• Which initiative focuses on encouraging reporting of safety events?
• Pre and post treatments refer to stages of care that occur before and after what?
• Which splint is a moldable, lightweight option often used for improvised immobilization?
• What does ORM stand for in risk management?
• What is the purpose of overseas/operational suitability screening?
• What is the purpose of the regulated medical waste program?
• PII in patient privacy refers to which of the following?
• What is the primary purpose of reviewing patient charts during intake?
• Which are types of periodic physical exams?
• Which form documents the dental record?
• Which step is essential to verify IV catheter patency after insertion?
• During retirement, what happens to dental records?
• Which of the following is a patient responsibility?
• What does FAST stand for in needle-stick protocol?
• Which diet is typically prescribed to minimize stomach irritation and promote gentle digestion?
• When is the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) NavMed 6120/4 conducted?
• What is the normal range described for vital signs in the material?
• What are typical power sources for a defibrillator?
• What parameters does a vital signs machine typically measure?
• Which symptom profile is not typical of major depressive disorder?
• ROS in the history of present illness stands for which of the following?
• Which mode describes predefined shocks without manual input?
• Which group includes Blood and Blood Products?
• Which item is NOT part of the SF 600 identification block?
• When using surgical staples, which step is essential for proper closure?
• What is the best practice when entering and submitting a laboratory order in the electronic system?
• What does change of shift signify in inpatient care?
• In Federal Supply catalog terminology, which item is defined as a consumable?
• Before forwarding the health record, which statement is correct?
• Make an entry on SF 600 in the HREC and in the new OREC, stating the date the HREC was closed.
• MRRS component which represents the overall medical readiness profile for a service member is which of the following?
• What is the goal of the Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC) program?
• In clinical documentation, what does 'Subjective' refer to?
• Which elements are associated with 'Radiology' in the electronic program of record (AHLTA, CHCS)?
• What is the purpose of Part 4 (Record of ancillary studies, therapies, etc.)?
• Urinalysis (UA) is primarily used to?
• How should sharps be disposed after use?
• Which OLDCARTS element is described by when the pain started, whether it is improving or getting worse, and whether there was a trigger?
• Which topic would be covered under safety / protective devices for this component?
• DD Form 2808 is primarily used to obtain medical data for what?
• Which item is Part 3 of the Summary information entries (SFs, DDs) for the jacket?
• Which statement best describes cellulitis management?
• Which item is considered a sharps for disposal?
• Which term describes the sequence of events in the medical history?
• Which OLDCARTS element is described by asking to describe the pain with terms like dull or sharp?
• What is the purpose of Part 2 (Record of medical care and treatment) of the health record?
• The folder NavMed 6150/10-19 applies to the military medical treatment jacket by including which data?
• Which term means a hidden or dormant infection?
• Activated Charcoal is commonly known by which trade name?
• Which action is performed when flushing a dental dry socket?
• Which organism is commonly managed under contact precautions?
• Which chart is used to measure visual acuity at a distance?
• Naproxen is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• After desertion, what happens to the medical/dental records?
• Naloxone is commonly known by which trade name?
• What power source powers a vital signs machine?
• In pt history components, what does LMP stand for and what does it indicate?
• What term describes the range between the minimum effective dose and the maximum safe dose?
• What safety practice is essential when operating a defibrillator on a patient?
• What is the primary purpose of the Terminal Digit Filing System (TDFS)?
• Which task involves updating the form labeled DD Form 2005?
• A high-residue (high-fiber) diet is primarily prescribed to treat or prevent which condition?
• During closing, what should be done with lab and x-ray reports?
• Which step is essential in both medical and surgical aseptic technique?
• Standard stock refers to which of the following?
• Which statement describes proper chemical spill neutralization and PPE use?
• What is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis?
• Which of the following is considered a component of a physical examination?
• What power source powers an IV pump unit?
• What data are included as the patient identification data on the military medical treatment jacket?
• Which site is commonly used for intramuscular injections in adults?
• What is the purpose of Part 1 (Record of preventive medicine and occupational health) of the health record?
• Which function does the OPNAV 5211/9 form serve in the military medical treatment jacket?
• Which term describes a hidden, inactive, or dormant infection?
• What is the purpose of the Hearing Conservation Program?
• What is the Farnsworth Lantern Test (FALANT) used for?
• In the history of present illness (HPI) interview, OLDCARTS helps document which element?
• For documenting health record entries, which elements are included?
• Acetaminophen is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• Which health and wellness topic focuses on reducing stress and managing anger?
• Before forwarding the health record, which data should be verified for accuracy?
• Which NAVMED form number corresponds to the Special Duty Medical Abstract?
• What is the primary function of the nebulizer unit?
• Which statement best differentiates an adverse drug reaction from a side effect?
• In case of death, what accompanies the transmitted medical records?
• The NAVMED 6150/4 is used to document what aspect in a service member's record?
• Where is a vital signs machine typically located?
• What information is required to complete the Report of Medical History (DD Form 2807-1)?
• What best defines a contraindication?
• Which term refers to the severity of the harmfulness of a disease?
• Which generic drug is most commonly marketed under the brand name Tylenol?
• Which type of splint is pneumatic or air-based and used to immobilize a injured limb?
• If additional space is needed, what is done?
• When storage times conflict, which rule takes precedence for RMW?
• Which elements are associated with the 'Laboratory' module in the electronic program of record (AHLTA, CHCS)?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of a CBC?
• Which route involves administration through the rectum?
• Which practice best describes proper urinary catheterization techniques and care management?
• The laundry program in occupational health surveillance primarily addresses which concern?
• What is the normal adult systolic/diastolic blood pressure range?
• Which term corresponds to 'looking' during a physical examination?
• Which test uses color plates to assess color vision when FALANT is unavailable?
• Which category best describes an infection caused by a virus?
• Which statement best describes the initial management of drug intoxications or poisonings?
• Which airway management procedure is used to remove secretions from the airway?
• Which form documents the immunization record in the military medical treatment jacket?
• Guaifenesin is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• What is the purpose of the four-part NAVMED form structure?
• Which practice helps reduce IV site complications?
• Which items are included in vital signs assessment?
• Which wound management technique is used to drain a localized infection, such as an abscess?
• Acute stroke most commonly presents with which of the following?
• DCAPBTLS includes several injury categories. Which item refers to swelling?
• During orthostatic blood pressure measurement, what is the correct sequence?
• How should cultures, stocks, and vaccines be disposed?
• Which form serves as the Chronological Record of Medical Care in the military medical treatment jacket?
• Pertinent positives are best described as which of the following?
• Which statement correctly describes phlebotomy needle sizes and usage?
• Which data elements define 'Previous encounters' in the electronic program of record (AHLTA, CHCS)?
• Which elements are included in the description of the chief complaint during an HPI?
• What is the first step in managing external hemorrhage from a bleeding wound?
• MRRS is a comprehensive mission-critical tracking system for immunizations and IMR used by which services?
• Which OLDCARTS element asks what makes the pain better or worse?
• For updating the Privacy Act Statement (DD Form 2005), which elements are included?
• Which term is defined as a disease caused by pathogenic organisms that can be spread from person to person?
• If a member remains in naval service after disenrollment, where is the health record forwarded?
• What information is required to complete the Reference audiogram (DD Form 2215)?
• Which items are included in the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) NavMed 6120/4?
• When should sharps containers be removed and sealed?
• What happens to NAVMED 6150/2 after activation?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six elements of IMR?
• What is the primary difference between urgent and routine medical reporting?
• After completing an ingrown toenail procedure, which post-procedure step is typically performed?
• Which system is a clinical information system that generates, maintains, stores, and provides secure electronic access to comprehensive patient records?
• Which option best describes the steps to prepare the IMR (Individual Medical Readiness) report?
• Which items are included in the demographics data for the DoD electronic program of record?
• For contact precautions, which PPE is recommended?
• Which form is used for the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)?
• What is the primary purpose of a Time Out before a medical procedure?
• When demonstrating how to close a health record, which set of elements should be included?
• Which system consolidates health data for readiness reporting across Navy commands?
• What is the primary purpose of a lipids panel?
• Which elements must be included on a specimen label to ensure proper identification?
• The Medical Readiness Reporting System is used to track and report what?
• Before performing an electrocardiogram, the healthcare provider should
• What term describes the process of transmission of infection through various links?
• Which type of transmission occurs where there is no direct human-to-human contact?
• Which airway adjunct is inserted into the mouth to prevent the tongue from occluding the airway in an unconscious patient?
• The Theater Medical Information Program (TMIP) is used to manage what aspect of care?
• What is the disposition of the health record after disenrollment?
• The food service attendant program within occupational health surveillance focuses on which practice?
• Which statement best describes processing medication administration using the electronic program of record or a single poly-script?
• Which procedure best ensures correct patient identification before drawing blood?
• What is the correct approach to storing and transporting collected specimens?
• What does an electrocardiogram (ECG) record?
• When administering nebulizer treatments, which instruction is essential?
• PPE stands for what?
• Ibuprofen is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• What is the primary use of a glucose test?
• For Regulated Medical Waste containers, which statement is accurate?
• Which OLDCARTS element asks whether the pain radiates to other areas?
• Naprosyn is a common trade name for which generic drug?
• The Military Health Service Population Health Portal (MHSPHP) / CarePoint 4G provides access to health applications and transforms data to support which of the following?
• Which action is appropriate when preparing instruments for sterile medical procedures?
• Where should wall-mounted sharps containers be placed to promote safe usage by staff?
• Which term describes the severity or level of harm caused by a disease?
• National stock number is best described as which of the following?
• Which term refers to measures to prevent pathogens from being passed on from one person to another?
• Sudafed is the trade name for which generic drug?
• How is a health record closed for missing in action?
• Epinephrine auto-injector is commonly known by which trade name?
• Pertinent negatives refer to signs or symptoms that the patient denies having. Which option best matches this definition?
• Which document serves as the Disclosure accounting form?
• Which statement correctly defines Special duty exam?
• Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of NAVENPVNTMEDU TWO?
• What is the recommended treatment for a sucking chest wound?
• Equipage refers to which of the following?
• What is universal precautions?
• What is the purpose of occupational health medical surveillance?
• Which statement best describes a third-degree burn?
• Mucinex is the trade name for which generic drug?
• Provision standbys during medical examinations serve what primary purpose?
• Which statement best describes proper sterilization of instruments?
• Which elements are required to satisfactorily perform the health record tasks described in the material?
• Which mortuary service is primarily responsible for preserving remains?
• In military medical documentation, DD Form 2005 is used to update which of the following?
• Which type of shock is most commonly triggered by a severe allergic reaction and is treated with rapid administration of epinephrine and airway support?
• Which statement best defines occupational exposure?
• Which FMP code range corresponds to 'Mother'?
• Which statement best describes the primary role of Navy Environmental and Preventive Medicine Unit personnel in supporting operational units?
• What term refers to measures to prevent pathogens from being passed on from one person to another?
• Which catheter type is most commonly used for short-term urinary drainage?
• Which statement best describes the medication adverse event reporting protocol?
• What is the first step upon discovery of a spill?
• What is the overall purpose of documenting health record entries?
• Which is NOT one of the four ORM principles?
• Which items are included under administrative tools for AHLTA and CHCS?
• Oxymetazoline is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• Who is responsible for carrying out medical surveillance duties within a medical department?
• Before forwarding the health record, which items must be verified for accuracy?
• In SF 600, what does the disposition section record?
• What does an audiogram measure?
• Describe the purpose of the Disease Reporting System Internet (DRSi) in preventive medicine.
• PII stands for which of the following?
• Which term describes the amount of drug that yields the desired therapeutic effect with minimal adverse effects?
• In Federal Supply catalog terminology, which of the following best describes bulk stock?
• Which action is part of standard precautions?
• Which route would be used for a vaginal medication?
• Which airway adjunct is placed through the nose to help maintain airway patency?
• What is the first step in controlling external hemorrhage?
• Which is NOT one of the core elements of ORM?
• How should sharps containers be prepared for transport to treatment or storage areas?
• Describe the function of the Composite Health Care System (CHCS) in DoD medical operations.
• In massive hemorrhage management, which is one of the four D's?
• Medical department personnel have responsibilities related to medical event reporting. Which statement best reflects these duties?
• What does SF 600 stand for in the medical record?
• What is the recommended order of draw when multiple tubes are collected?
• DD Form 2807-1 is used for which purpose?
• Which step is part of the primary assessment?
• What is the initial management priority for a patient with suspected internal hemorrhage?
• In first aid, what is the correct management for a puncture wound?
• Which injection route involves administering into the dermal layer of the skin for vaccines?
• Which IMR element covers periodic health assessment?
• Which dosing approach adjusts the amount of medication based on body weight?
• What is the primary rationale for IV therapy in patients with cardiovascular concerns?
• What is a common first-line component of treatment for major depressive disorder?
• Acetylsalicylic Acid is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• Which items are included in occupational health data as defined by OSHA?
• Which is a typical action during contact precautions?
• In inpatient care, what does PRN mean?
• Pseudoephedrine is commonly marketed under which trade name?
• Which occupational health surveillance area would primarily address prevention of heat-related illnesses such as heat stroke?
• Which condition presents with chest pain due to myocardial ischemia and is treated as an acute coronary syndrome?
• What is the proper approach to bleeding with potential amputation risk?
• Which practice helps prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections?
• Which of the following is NOT a mode of transmission for infectious agents?
• Which scenario requires referral to a medical officer, physician assistant, or IDC during screening?
• What is the primary function of a defibrillator in clinical care?
• Upon retirement, what is established and what may be incorporated into a NAVMED folder?
• Which modes might a vital signs machine have?
• Which condition is primarily treated with anticoagulation therapy as part of standard management?
• During a Time Out, the team should confirm which information to prevent errors?
• What are 'order sets' in the administrative tools?
• Which disease is a classic example of airborne transmission requiring an AIIR?
• Which term describes the ability to resist a particular infection or toxin by antibodies or sensitized white blood cells?
• Which statement best describes VAERS reporting?
• Which route involves applying medication to the skin or mucous membranes?
• Which of the following is a common adverse reaction associated with IV therapy?
• At retirement, what is established for the member's medical records?
• Which item qualifies as a sharps example due to contact with infectious agents?
• Which item is commonly used with vital signs machines?
• In the Hearing Conservation Program, what sounds are considered harmful?
• Which describes the correct initial steps when performing sutures on a clean wound?
• Disposal of Sharps: which method is correct?
• Which procedure is commonly performed to treat an ingrown toenail?
• In HPI, what are 'pertinent positives'?
• What is the purpose of the NAVMED 6150/4, Abstract of Service and Medical History, in the closing process?
• What OLDCARTS element is defined by asking when the symptoms started?
• Which statement best describes general practices for collecting laboratory specimens (urine, stool, throat culture, wound, sputum, and blood culture)?
• Which action is part of the 3 checks of medication administration?
• Which term refers to diseases caused by pathogens that can spread among people?
• Which are types of qualifying examinations?
• What describes physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person?
• TST results should be read at which time frame after administration?
• What is the difference between medical asepsis and surgical asepsis?
• What is a recommended immediate intervention for suspected heat stress in the workplace?
• Which level of PPE provides the highest level of protection for skin, respiratory, and eyes?
• During annual verification, which form serves as the Privacy Act statement for the health records jacket?
• Which generic drug is most commonly marketed under the brand name Advil?
• Upon final discharge, to whom are medical and dental records forwarded and by when?
• Which biopsy technique uses a circular blade to remove a small cylinder of skin?
• What type of container must be used to transport RMW off-site?
• Which item would be considered a consumable or accessory for the nebulizer unit?
• Which term describes a disease state that is present but not causing symptoms?
• Airborne precautions require which PPE before entering the room?
• Where is the Privacy Act statement (DD Form 2005) located in the record jacket?
• Which resource describes improvements in patient care processes?
• What is required when closing a health record in case of death or declared death?
• Which symptom would indicate a vaccine adverse reaction requiring medical assessment?
• BUMEDINST 6440.5D governs which program?
• What is the recommended solution to flush a dental dry socket?
• An Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) must have which ventilation characteristics?
• Which injury category most often requires exploration for foreign bodies and potential contamination?
• Which method applies a drug through the respiratory tract for systemic or local effect?
• Epinephrine auto-injector should be used in which emergency situation?
• What are sharps containers required to be?
• NAVENPVNTMEDU TWO is primarily responsible for which of the following?
• The Special Duty Medical Abstract is documented on which NAVMED form?
• What is the appropriate action when abdominal contents protrude after an injury (abdominal evisceration)?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a health and wellness program topic?
• Hypothermia falls under which environmental injury category?
• Which FMP code range corresponds to 'Spouse'?
• What is the primary function of an IV pump unit?
• In Federal Supply catalog terminology, what best describes 'Material'?
• DD Form 2215 establishes what kind of record?
• Which elements are included in the health history data for the DoD electronic program of record?
• Sorbents onboard can be divided into two categories: which statement is true?
• NAVMED 6150/2 is used to record what?
• Which of the following is included in standard precautions to reduce the transmission of pathogens?
• Which topic corresponds to 'modes of operation or control' for the nebulizer unit?
• What is the purpose of physical examinations for military service members?
• What color is assigned to SSN digits 60-69?
• Which sequence best represents the typical steps of a venipuncture procedure?
• During transport, what is recommended to minimize exposure?
• What folder designation is used for a retired member's new medical record?
• Which of the following is a contraindication to a medication?
• Which topic is typically addressed under the nebulizer unit's modes of operation or control?
• Medical surveillance is used to do what?
• Which checks are performed on vaccines refrigerators to ensure viability?
• Which statement best defines 'Contact point' in patient communication?
• Which item is commonly needed with a defibrillator?
• Which describes the correct administration procedure for a tuberculin skin test (TST)?
• Which statement accurately describes specimen tube additives?
• Which describes the purpose of a culture test in microbiology?
• What is the primary purpose of the Joint Commission?
• What splint is designed for traction and immobilization of long-bone injuries?
• In health records color coding, what color corresponds to SSN digits 50-59?
• Which description best matches the purpose of a Chem7 (basic metabolic panel) test?
• Which principle applies to collecting laboratory specimens such as urine, stool, throat culture, wound, sputum, and blood culture?
• Which term means performed through the skin?